101. The scope of a project cannot be
defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach
Answer: C
102. A project manager seeking insight on
previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:
A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database.
B. Historical information and the stakeholder register.
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.
D. Project documents and historical information
Answer: A
103. Identify Stakeholders is the process
of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and
documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in,
and impact on the project:
A. manager
B. success
C. deadline
D. scope
Answer: B
104. Which of the following reduces the
probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action
B. Risk management
C. Corrective action
D. Defect repair
Answer: A
105. What name(s) is (are) associated with
the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi
Answer: C
106. Which of the following project
documents is an input to the Control Scope process?
A. Vendor risk assessment diagram
B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary
Answer: C
107. Which of the following statements best
describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time
advances?
A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes
increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes
increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes
decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes
decreases.
Answer: B
108. The business needs, assumptions, and
constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level
requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan.
B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Stakeholder register.
Answer: B.
109. Which is a tool or technique used in
scope definition?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Project assumptions
Answer: C
110. A temporary endeavor that creates a
unique product or services is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
Answer:
A
111. Risk responses reflect an
organization’s perceived balance between:
(7:09)
A. risk taking and risk avoidance
B. known risk and unknown risk.
C. identified risk and analyzed risk
D. varying degrees of risk
Answer: A
112. Stakeholder management strategy is an
output of:
A. Plan communications.
B. Distribute Information
C. Report Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders.
Answer: D
113. The Cost Management processes and
their associated tools and techniques are usually selected during which of the
following?
A. Project finance management
B. Project cost estimation
C. Project life cycle definition
D. Project plan development
Answer: C
114. Req doc, req management plan, and req
traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
Answer: B
115. Which of the following is an example
of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing, front loading, or fast tracking
Answer: A
116. An input required to develop a
preliminary project scope statement is:
A. Organizational Structure
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Organizational Matrix
D. Organizational Breakdown Structures
Answer: B
117. The output that defines an approach to
increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
A. stakeholder management strategy
B. communications management plan,
C. stakeholder register,
D. performance report.
Answer: A
118. In project management, a temporary
project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
Answer: C
119. MonteCarlo is which type of risk
analysis technique?
A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity
Answer: B
120. What is the most accurate rough order
of magnitude (ROM)?
A. In the initiation phase, the estimate is in the range
B. In the planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the
range of +/- 15%.
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
Answer: A
121. Which stakeholder approves a project’s
result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
Answer: A
122. Which of the following tools and
techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Decomposition
Answer: A
123. The Verify Scope process is primarily
concerned with:
A. formalizing acceptance of the completed
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: A
124. Which cost is associated with
nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
Answer: A
125. Which of the following risk response
strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive
A. Mitigate
B. Tranfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
Answer: C
126. What is Project Portfolio Management?
A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more
manageable sub-projects.
B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general
management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and
controlling.
C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.
D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together
to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.
Answer:
D
127. Which tool or techniques is used in
the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: D
128. In the Plan Stakeholder Management
process, expert judgment is udes to:
A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage
project stakeholders.
B. ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new
stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope
statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each
required stage.
Answer: D
129. The risk shared between the buyer and
seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log.
B. quality checklist
C. risk register.
D. Contract type
Answer: D
130. Which is a tool or technique used in
Define Scope?
A. Template, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions
Answer: C
131. Which process determines the risks
that might affect the project?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Answer: B
132. An input to the Collect Requirements
process is the:
A. stakeholder register
B. project management plan
C. project scope statement
D. requirements management plan.
Answer: A
133. A Project Management Office (PMO)
manages a number of aspects, including what?
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the
work packages
B. Central coordinator of communications management across projects,
and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity
assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among
projects.
Answer: D
134. Which project risk listed in the table
vbelow is most likely to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
135. The project ahrter is an input to
which process?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: B
136. Which process is usually a rapid and
cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?
A. Identify Risks
B. Plan risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: C
137. Which of the following Process Group
covers all Project Management Knwledge Areas?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initating
Answer: C
138. Technical capability, past
performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
A. performance measurement criteria
B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria
Answer: B
139. Project management process ensure the:
Alignment with organizational strategy
Efficient means to achieve the project objectives
Performance of the project team
Effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
Answer: D
140. A tool and technique used during the
Collect Requirements process is:
A. prototypes.
B. expert judgment
C. alternatives identification
D. product analysis
Answer: A
141. What is the risk rating if the
probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate
(0.20)?
A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50
Answer: B
142. The Define Scope process is in which
of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: B
143. Which of the following documents
allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
Answer: C
144. A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally
sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the
work required, and only the work required, to complete the project
successfully.
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to
project activities to meet the project requirements
Answer: A
145. Which type of dependency is
contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
A. External
B. Lead
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
Answer: D
146. Which of the following is a narrative
description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?
A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information
Answer: A
147. Projects are undertaken by an
organization to support the:
A. Product performance.
B. Budget process.
C. Collective capabilities
D. Organizational strategy
Answer: D
148. Which of the following is an input to the
Qualitative risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Answer: A
149. Most experienced project managers know
that:
A. every project requires the use of all
processes in the PMBOK Guide
B. there is no single way to manage a
project
C. project management techniques are risk
free
D. there is only one way to manage projects
succesfully
Answer: B
150. In the initiating Process Group, at
what point does the project become officially authorized?
A. When the project charter is signed
B. When all the stakeholders agree on the
scope of the project
C. When the project manager is appointed
D. When the necessary finance or funding is
obtained
Answer: A
151. What is Project Management?
A. A logical grouping of project management
inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques.
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools and
techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
C. Launching a process that can result in
the authorization of the new project.
D. A formal, approved document that defines
how the project is executed, monitored and controlled.
Answer: B
152. The component of the risk management
plan that documents how the risks activities will be recorded is called:
A. tracking
B. scoping
C. timing
D. defining
Answer: A
153. The project management processes are
usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in
practice they:
A. operate separately.
B. move together in batches.
C. overlap and interact.
D. move in a sequence.
Answer: C
154. Which group creativity technique asks
as selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback
regarding the responses for each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Answer: A
155. In which process is a project manager
identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Chapter
Answer: D
156. Which of the following is the primary
output of the Identify Risk Project process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Change requests
D. Risk response plan
Answer: B
157. Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool
or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate
distribution of reports?
A. Information management systems
B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation
Answer: A
158. Which characteristics do effective
projects managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge,
performance skills, and personal effectiveness.
B. Preparedness, project management
knowledge and personality characteristics.
C. General management, preparedness and
project management knowledge.
D. Assertiveness, collaboration and
performance skills.
Answer: A
159. Which Control Scope input is compared
to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the
projects?
A. Scope baseline
B. Scope management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Cost baseline
Answer: A
160. A project purpose or justification,
measurable project objectives and relative success criteria, a summary
milestone schedule and summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
Answer: C
161. Which activity is an input to the
select sellers process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
Answer: A
162. As part of mid-project evaluation, the
project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should
be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
Answer: B
163. In which Management Project Process
Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Answer: C
164. Inputs to identifying stakeholders
include:
A. Project charter, procurement documents,
enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
B. Project charter, stakeholder analysis,
enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
C. Project charter, stakeholder analysis,
enterprise environmental factors, and stakeholder management strategy.
D. Project charter, procurement documents,
expert judgment, and organizational process assets.
Answer: A
165. Which of the following processes are
part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect
Requirements, Create WBS.
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control
Scope, Develop Schedule.
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope,
Estimate Costs.
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and
Manage Project Execution, Close Project o Phase.
Answer: D
166. Which input to the Plan Management
process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
Answer: A
167. The scope management plan is a
subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
Answer: B
168. The degree of uncertainty an entity is
willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite
Answer: D
169. Stakeholders can be identified in
later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should
be:
A. Continuos
B. Discrete
C. Regulated
D. Arbitrary
Answer: A
170. Within a matrix organization, dual
reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for
managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager supported by the
project manager
D. Project management office.
Answer: B
171. The organization´s perceived balance
between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Answer: A
172. Which of the following is an
information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Brainstorming
C. Assumption analysis
D. SWOT analysis
Answer: B
173. Which of the following correctly
explains the term “progressive elaboration”?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project
progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project
specifications with change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more
explicit and detailed as the project progresses
Answer: D
174. Which of the following includes how
requirements activities will be planned, tracked and reported?
A. Configuration management plan
B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan
D. Schedule baseline
Answer: C
175. High-level project risks are included
in which document:
A. Business case
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Project charter
D. Risk register
Answer:
C
176. Which type of analysis is used as a
general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?
A. Risks assessment analysis
B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
Answer: B
177. Which document describes the necessary
information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of Understanding
D. Business Case
Answer: D
178.
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Project documentation updates
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
Answer: D
179. Who is responsible for determining
which processes from the Process Group will be employed and who will be
performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
Answer: C
180. Which process uses occurrence
probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of
identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: B
181. Soft logic is also known what type of
dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Mandatory
D. Internal
Answer: B
182. Which input to Collect Requirements is
used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Answer: A
183. In which type of organizational
structure are staff members organized by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
Answer: A
184. The risk management team of a software
project has decided that due the lack of adequate talent in the company,
development a specific part of system is under high risk, so the team has
decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
A. Transfer
B. Share
C. Avoid
D. Accept
Answer: A
185. At which point of the project is the
uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project.
Answer: B
186.
The methodology that combines scope, schedule and resource measurements
to assess project performance and progress is known as:
A. Earned value management
B. Forecasting
C. Critical chain methodology
D. Critical path methodology
Answer: A
187. An electronics firm authorizes a new
project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in
the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic
considerations is the project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity
Answer: C
188. An input required in Define Scope is
an organizational:
A. structure.
B. process asset.
C. matrix.
D. Breakdown structure.
Answer: B
189. Which of the following is an example
of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
Answer: A
190. Which process is included in the
Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Collect Requirements
C. Sequence activities
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
Answer: D
191. The project governance approach should
be described in the:
A. change control plan
B. project scope
C. Statement of work
D. project management plan
Answer: D
192. What risk technique is used to
quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk register
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
Answer: D
193. A tool and technique used during the
Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops.
B. observations.
C. questionnaires and surveys.
D. group creativity techniques.
Answer: A
194. What are the five Project Management
Process Groups?
A. Initiating, Planning, Executing,
Monitoring and Controlling, Closing.
B. Introduction, Planning, Executing,
Monitoring and Controlling, Closing.
C. Initiating, Planning, Executing,
Monitoring and Controlling, Ending.
D. Introduction, Planning, Implementation,
Monitoring and Controlling, and Closure.
Answer: A
195. A risk that arises as a direct result
of implementing a risk response is called a:
A. contingent risk
B. residual risk
C. potential risk
D. secondary risk
Answer: D
196. The scope management plan and scope
baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
Answer: D
197. Project contracts generally fall into
which of the following three broad categories?
A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and
materials.
B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis,
fixed-price.
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin
analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum,
cost-plus-incentive.
Answer: A
198. An output of the Develop Project Team
process is:
A. change requests
B. team performance assessment
C. project staff assignments
D. project document updates
Answer: B
199. Which of the following is an
enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter
process?
A. Organizational standard process
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
Answer: B
200. Which of the following is an input of
the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change request
Answer: C
