Preguntas para el pmp del 1 al 100
1.
Which process involves
developing and approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete
project activities?
a.
Estimate
Costs
b.
Control
Costs
c.
Determine
Budget
d.
Plan Cost
Management
Answer: A
2.
When a project is undertaken to
reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to
create a/an:
a.
Improvement
b.
Program
c.
Result
d.
Portfolio
Answer: A
3.
Which document in the project
management plan can be updated in the Plan’s Procurement Management Process?
a.
Budget
estimates
b.
Risk matrix
c.
Requirements
documentation
d.
Procurement
documents
Answer: C
4.
Which of the following is a
project constraint?
a.
Twenty-five percent staff
turnover is expected
b.
The technology to be used is
cutting-edge
c.
Project leadership may change
due to volatile political environment.
d.
The product is needed in 250
days.
Answer: C
5.
An input to Develop Project
Charter is a/an:
a.
Business
case.
b.
Activity
list.
c.
Project
management plan.
d.
Cost
forecast.
Answer: A
6.
Which of the following are an
enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
a.
Work
performance reports.
b.
Assumptions
logs.
c.
Network
diagrams.
d.
Academic
studies.
Answer: D
7.
Which element does a project
Charter contain? (4:00)
a.
Management reserves
b.
Work breakdown structure
c.
Stakeholder list
d.
Stakeholder register
Answer: C
8.
The zero duration of milestones
in project planning occurs because milestones:
a.
Are unpredictable and challenge
the Plan Schedule Management process.
b.
Occur at random times in the
project plans.
c.
Represent a moment in time such
a significant project point or event.
d.
Represent both significant and
insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.
Answer: C
9.
Which of the following is an
example of contract administration?
a.
Negotiating the contract
b.
Authorizing contractor work.
c.
Developing the statement of
work
d.
Establishing evaluation
criteria.
Answer: B
10.
Which item is an example of
personnel assessment?
a.
Resource calendar
b.
Tight matrix
c.
Team-building activity
d.
Focus group
Answer: D
11.
What is the definition of
Direct and Manage Project Execution? (6:52)
a.
Integrating all planned
activities
b.
Performing the activities
included in the plan.
c.
Developing and maintaining the
plan.
d.
Execution of deliverables.
Answer: B
12.
The degree, amount, or volume
of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
a.
Appetite
b.
Tolerance
c.
Threshold
d.
Management
Answer: B
13.
Identify Risk is part of which
Process Group?
a.
Planning
b.
Executing
c.
Closing
d.
Initiating
Answer: A
14.
A project can be defined as a:
a.
Temporary endeavor undertaken
to create a unique product, service, or result.
b.
Temporary endeavor that
produces repetitive outputs.
c.
Permanent endeavor undertaken
to create a unique product, service, or result.
d.
Permanent endeavor that
produces repetitive outputs
Answer: A
15.
What is the probability of
occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is
very high (0.80)?
a.
0.45
b.
0.56
c.
0.70
d.
1.36
Answer: C
16.
Every project creates a unique
product, service, or result that may be:
a.
Tangible
b.
Targeted
c.
Organized
d.
Variable
Answer: A
17.
Who selects the appropriate
processes for a project?
a.
Project stakeholders
b.
Project sponsor and project
stakeholder
c.
Project manager and project
team
d.
Project manager and project
sponsor
Answer: C
18.
In which process group is the
scope first defined?
a.
Initiating
b.
Planning
c.
Executing
d.
Controlling
Answer: A
19.
Skills necessary for project
management such as motivation to provide encouragement; listening actively;
persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and
identifying next steps are known as:
a.
Organizational skills
b.
Technical skills
c.
Communication skills
d.
Hard skills
Answer: C
20.
Which of the following tools
and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process? (12:35)
a.
Acquisitions
b.
Organizational theories
c.
Team-building activities
d.
Virtual teams.
Answer: C
21.
Which of the following is an
output of the Distribute Information process?
a.
Project calendar
b.
Communications management plan
c.
Organizational process assets
update
d.
Project documents updates
Answer: C
22.
Who is responsible for
initiating a project?
a.
Project sponsor
b.
Project manager
c.
Program manager
d.
Project management Office (PMO)
Answer: A
23.
The creation of an internet site
to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of
communication?
a.
Push
b.
Pull
c.
Interactive
d.
Iterative
Answer: B
24.
When addressing roles and
responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to
completed project activities?
a.
Authority
b.
Role
c.
Competency
d.
Responsibility
Answer: C
25.
Which type of agreement is
legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership,
joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
a.
Teaming
b.
Collective bargaining
c.
Sharing
d.
Working
Answer: A
26.
Which technique is commonly
used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
a.
Brainstorming
b.
Strategies for opportunities
c.
Decision tree analysis
d.
Risk data quality assessment
Answer: C
27.
Which is an input to the Scope
Verification Process?
a.
Performance report
b.
Work breakdown structure
c.
Requested changes
d.
Project scope statement
Answer: D
28.
Prioritizing risks for further
analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence
and impact takes place in which process?
a.
Monito and Control Risks
b.
Plan risk Management
c.
Perform Qualitative Risk
Analysis
d.
Perform Quantitate Risk
Analysis
Answer: C
29.
In which Knowledge Area is the
project charter developed?
a.
Project Cost Management
b.
Project Scope Management
c.
Project Time Management
d.
Project Integration Management
Answer: D
30.
Which of the following is an
output of the Define Activities Process?
a.
Activity listk
b.
Project plan
c.
Activity duration estimates
d.
Project Schedule
Answer: A
31.
The stakeholder register is an
output of:
a.
Identify Stakeholders.
b.
Plan Stakeholder Management.
c.
Control Stakeholder Engagement
d.
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Answer: A
32.
Risk exists the moment that a
project is:
a.
Planned
b.
Conceived
c.
Chartered
d.
Executed.
Answer: B
33.
The initial development of a
Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
a.
Alternatives identification
b.
Scope decomposition
c.
Expert judgment
d.
Product analysis
Answer: C
34.
The application of knowledge,
skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project
requirements describes management of which of the following?
a.
Project
b.
Scope
c.
Contract
d.
Program
Answer: A
35.
Which of the following
processes includes prioritizing risk for subsequent further analysis or action
by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact? (22:39)
a.
Qualitative risk analysis
b.
Quantitative risk analysis
c.
Risk management planning
d.
Risk response planning
Answer: A
36.
What is a hierarchically
organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
a.
Risk register
b.
Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
c.
Risk management plan
d.
Risk category
Answer: B
37.
Which type of contract is a
hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
a.
A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract
(CPAF)
b.
Firm-Fixed – Price Contract
(FFP)
c.
Time and Material Contract
(T&M)
d.
Cost Plus Incentive Fee
Contract (CPIF)
Answer: C
38.
In which type of contract are
the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price
determined after completion of all work based on the seller’s performance?
a.
Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
b.
Fixed Price with Economic Price
Adjustments (FP-EPA)
c.
Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee
(FPIF)
d.
Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
Answer: C
39.
An issue log is an input to
which Project Human Resource
a.
Manage Project Team
b.
Acquire Project Team
c.
Plan Human Resource Management
d.
Develop Project Team
Answer: A
40.
What are the components of the “Triple
constraint”
a.
Scope, time, Requirements
b.
Resources, time, cost
c.
Scope, management, cost
d.
Scope, time, cost
Answer: D
41.
Which of the following is a
tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
a.
Networking
b.
Training
c.
Negotiation
d.
Issue log
Answer: C
42.
Which of the following
forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future
outcomes?
a.
Time series
b.
Judgmental
c.
Econometric
d.
Simulation
Answer: A
43.
Which of the following helps to
ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business
and project objectives?
a.
Requirements traceability
matrix
b.
Work breakdown structure (WBS)
dictionary
c.
Requirement management plan
d.
Requirement documentation
Answer: A
44.
An output of the Manage
Stakeholder Engagement process is:
a.
Change requests
b.
Enterprise environmental
factors
c.
The stakeholder management plan
d.
The change log
Answer: A
45.
Project managers who lead by
example and follow through on the commitments the make demonstrate the key interpersonal
skill of:
a.
Influencing
b.
Leadership
c.
Motivation
d.
Coaching
Answer: A
46.
What characteristic do project
and operational work share in common?
a.
Performed by systems
b.
Constrained by limited
resources
c.
Repetitiveness
d.
Uniqueness
Answer: B
47.
The risk response strategy in
which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact
of a risk is known as:
a.
Exploit
b.
Avoid
c.
Mitigate
d.
Share
Answer: C
48.
Which tool or technique is used
to develop a project charter?
a.
Project manager information
systems
b.
Expert judgment
c.
Change control meeting
d.
Brainstorming
Answer: B
49.
Which enterprise environmental
factors are considered during cost estimating?
a.
Marketplace conditions and
commercial databases
b.
Marketplace conditions and
company structure
c.
Commercial databases and company
structure
d.
Existing human resources and
market place conditions.
Answer: A
50.
Which is the document that
presents a hierarchical project organization?
a.
WBS
b.
CPI
c.
OBS ok
d.
BOM
Answer: C
50. Which is the document that presents a
hierarchical project organization?
A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM
Answer: C
51. What is one of the objectives of the
Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project
objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a
risk mitigation plan can be put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of the project risks.
Answer: C
52. What process determines which risks
might affect the project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Answer: B
53. Plan Risk Management is the process of
defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.
C. Analyse the impact a specific risk may have on a project.
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.
Answer: B
54. The project scope statement and
resources calendar are inputs to which Project Time Management process?
A. Sequence Activities
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
Answer: C
55. Which standard has interrelationships
to other project management disciplines such as project management and
portfolio management?
A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK)
Answer: D
56. Which is the Define Scope technique
used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the
project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgement
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Answer: C
57. Which input to the Identify
Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties
related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communication plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
Answer: C
58. Which is an output of the Collect
Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
Answer: A
59. Which Process Group and Knowledge Area
include the Sequence Activities process?
A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management
Answer:
C
60. The purpose of developing a project
scope management plan is to:
A. Manage the timely completion of the project.
B. Ensure that the project includes all the work required.
C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was
begun.
D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.
Answer: B
61. Which Knowledge Area involves
identifying the people, the groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or
impact the project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
Answer: D
62. Stakeholder satisfaction should be
managed as a key project:
A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
Answer: C
63. Plan Communications Management develops
an approach and plan for project communication based on stakeholder´s needs and
requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: A
64. Which type of risk diagram is useful
for showing time ordering of events?
A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision Tree
Answer: C
65. A tool and technique used in the
Develop Project Chapter process is:
A. change control tool
B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques
Answer: B
66. PMBOI Guide is a standard that
describes:
A. product-oriented processes.
B. project management processes.
C. product-oriented and project management processes.
D. program management and project management processes.
Answer: B
67. Which of the following is an input of
to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Answer: A
68. Projects are separated into phases or
subprojects; these phases includes:
A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.
B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.
C. Develop chapter, Define activities, Manage stakeholders
expectations, and Report Performance.
D. Identify stakeholders, develop concepts, built, and test.
Answer: A
69. An element of the project scope
statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget.
D. High-level risks.
Answer: A
70. Which process is conducted from project
inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the
project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: D
71. What type of project structure is a
hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)
Answer: B
72. Which of the following is TRUE about
most project life cycles?
A. Staffing level is highest at the start.
B. The stakeholder´s influence is highest at the start.
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.
Answer: B
73. The component of the human resource
management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain
certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
Answer: D
74. Which Collect Requirements output links
the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project document updates
Answer: B
75. Which type of probability distribution
is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a
possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear
Answer: C
76. Which process involves determining,
documenting, and managing stakeholder´s needs and requirements to meet project
objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
Answer: A
77. What is the definition of project plan
execution?
A. Integrating all plan activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables
Answer: B
78. Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will be inevitable impact project and organizational
objectives.
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational
objectives.
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and
organizational objectives.
D. the negative impact of undesired events on their projects and
organizational objectives.
Answer: B
79. Which statement is true about the
project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project management
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
Answer: B
80. Which Process Group contain those
processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
Answer: A
81. The project manager notes that
stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively
engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders
should be classified as:
A. Supportive
B. Leading
C. Neutral
D. Resistant
Answer: B
82. Scope verification is PRIMARILY
concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
83.
The diagram below is an example of a:
** NO SE VE EL DIAGRAMA
A. Risk Breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Project team
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: A
84. Who MUST know when a risk event occurs
so that a response can be implemented?
A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department
Answer: C
85. The process of defining how the project
scope will be validated and controlled is knows as:
A. Define Scope.
B. Develop Project Management Plan.
C. Plan Scope Management.
D. Plan Quality Management.
Answer: C
86. A weighting system is a tool for which
area of Conduct Procurements?
A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller´s
D. Planning purchase and acquisition
Answer:
C
87. Where are product requirements and
characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
Answer: A
88. One of the objectives of a quality
audit is to:
A. highlight the need for root cause analysis.
B. share the process documentation among stakeholders.
C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities.
D. identify all the gaps or shortcomings.
Answer: D
89. Which activity is an input to the
Conduct Procurements process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Changed Control
D. Team performance assessment
Answer: A
90. Which of the following investigates the
likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
Answer: D
91. The product scope description is used
to:
A. Gain stakeholder´s support for the project.
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product,
service or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed
product, service or result.
Answer: B
92. What entity is assigned various
responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those
projects under its domain?
A. Project management office
B. Project team office
C. Executive sponsor office
D. Program management office
Answer: A
93. Which is an enterprise environmental
factor?
A. Marketplace conditions
B. Policies and procedures
C. Project files from previous projects
D. Lesson learned from previous projects
Answer: A
94. Projects that share common outcomes,
collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio
Answer: B
95. The formal and informal interaction
with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known
as:
A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking
Answer: D
96. The probability and impact matrix is
primarily used to:
A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.
B. Develop a risk register for risk planning.
C. Evaluate each risk´s importance and priority during Perform
Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk
Analysis.
Answer:
C
97. Which process uses occurrence
probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of
identified risks?
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Answer: B
98. Which kind of diagram includes groups
of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
A. Affinity
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Matrix
Answer: D
99. Which of the following methods is a
project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
Answer: C
100. A complete set of concepts, terms and
activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. Knowledge area
B. Process Group
C. Program Management
D. Portfolio Management
Answer: A
No hay comentarios:
Publicar un comentario